I've spent the last hour searching through threads but my question still remains.
Obviously, most reactions will not have Keq=1 at equilibrium-- so why do standard conditions say a system is at equilibrium when concentrations of reactant and products are 1M (or Keq=1?)
I feel like there is something simple that I confused myself with
Thanks for any help!!
Obviously, most reactions will not have Keq=1 at equilibrium-- so why do standard conditions say a system is at equilibrium when concentrations of reactant and products are 1M (or Keq=1?)
I feel like there is something simple that I confused myself with
